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  #1  
Old 11-21-11, 11:28 PM
henry89
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When do you chop a pot with same pair?

I play a lot of tournaments and have never understood when a chop pot is declared when two players have the same pair and one has a higher kicker.

Suppose SB has A-7 and BB has A-5 and the board runs AJJ9K - is that a chop pot because both players have two pair with all higher cards than their kicker? Suppose SB had AQ - would they get the whole pot because they have a card over the two jacks?

What about if SB had A-7 and BB has A-5 and the board runs AJK9Q? Does SB win the pot?

Sorry if this makes no sense but I'd love if someone explained this to me in simpler terms.
  #2  
Old 11-23-11, 02:37 PM
twocent06's Avatar
twocent06 twocent06 is offline
 
Join Date: Jun 2009
Posts: 17
play the best 5 cards at all times dude! no matter if the cards are in your hand or on the board.. if 6 ppl play a hand and there are fours aces with a king on the board, all 6 players will chop... this isnt unique to tourney or cash, it is all poker holdem games... the fact that you are even asking this question tells me that you do not need to play any kind of poker other than a free game at a bar at the very most
  #3  
Old 11-25-11, 06:29 PM
lostseoul lostseoul is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2011
Posts: 1
chop pot

Without the arrogant condescention (from twocent06)...
It is still a chop pot due to the K. Only other two pair hand that wins is ak.

Using the best 5 cards from both hands:
Community cards: A J J K 9
A (7) A J J K (9)
A (5) A J J K (9)
A (Q) A J J K (9)
the cards in parentheses are not played due to the being outranked.
  #4  
Old 11-27-11, 09:19 PM
twocent06's Avatar
twocent06 twocent06 is offline
 
Join Date: Jun 2009
Posts: 17
next time you wish to reference me (lostseoul) ; might I suggest that you at least spell the word properly you are trying to use .... "condescension" is the correct spelling by the way...
 


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